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You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server1 if Server2 fails

Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Both servers have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 and Server2 are located in
different offices. The offices connect to each other by using a high-latency WAN link.
Server2 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server1 if Server2 fails. The solution must
minimize hardware costs.
What should you do?

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A.
On Server1, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the
VHDs for VM1.

B.
From the Hyper-V Settings of Server2, modify the Replication Configuration settings.
Enable replication for VM1.

C.
On Server2, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the
VHDs for VM1.

D.
From the Hyper-V Settings of Server1, modify the Replication Configuration settings.
Enable replication for VM1.

Explanation:
You first have to enable replication on the Replica server–Server1 –by going to the server
and modifying the “Replication Configuration” settings under Hyper-V settings. You then go
to VM1 –which presides on Server2– and run the “Enable Replication” wizard on VM1.

13 Comments on “You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server1 if Server2 fails

    1. dave says:

      Both those links show the initial step as enabling Hyper-V Replica on the ‘backup’ Hyper-V host first, before then going back to the initial Hyper-V host and enabling replication on the individual VM.

      Based on that, option D looks correct it just isn’t worded very well. To clarify, the full sentence could read “From the Hyper-V settings of Server 1, modify the Replication configuration settings. Then on Server 2 enable replication for VM1




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  1. Joe says:

    D is correct. They try to trick you with the way they write questions/answers.
    Enable server1 to be a replica server then on server 2 enable replication for VM1 as dave said.




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      1. Digixorcist says:

        True; but enabling replication on the source server is only a best practice (for returning to normal state after a failover occured). It is not *required* to fulfill the question’s demands.

        So, enable replication on the target first, then set up VM1 to be replicated. There is no mention of having to return to normal afterwards.




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